
83% Arabian X Arabian = Part Arabian?
I bred an 83% Arabian X Part Forest horse mare to an Arabian stallion and the result somehow was Forest horse (63%) X Part Arabian?
How is this possible? I understand that a line can be made purebred when they're at least 95% one breed, but this wouldn't explain why the foal is more Forest horse than his Part Forest horse dam.
http://www.horseworldonline.net/horse/profile/317588#
How is this possible? I understand that a line can be made purebred when they're at least 95% one breed, but this wouldn't explain why the foal is more Forest horse than his Part Forest horse dam.
http://www.horseworldonline.net/horse/profile/317588#

Re: 83% Arabian X Arabian = Part Arabian?
The percentage applies to the first breed listed, which for the foal is Arabian. So he is at most 36% Forest Horse which is much less than his dam.